A 55-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with a large hard, fixed, intraabdominal mass. On examination of the abdomen, the mass was situated on the transpyloric plane and appeared to be attached to the posterior abdominal wall. The inguinal lymph nodes were normal.
-The symptoms and signs displayed by this patient can be explained by the following statements except which?
A) Radiologic examination of the stomach showed nothing abnormal.
B) The right testicle was enlarged and was much harder than normal.
C) A diagnosis of malignant disease of the right testis was made.
D) The malignant tumor had metastasized to the lumbar lymph nodes lying on the transpyloric plane on the posterior abdominal wall, which is the normal lymphatic drainage of the testis.
E) In malignant disease of the testis the superficial inguinal lymph nodes only become involved if the tumor spreads to involve the scrotal skin.
F) The normal testis is tethered to the skin of the scrotum.
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