A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of shortness of breath and fever. He is a chronic injection drug user. He has a history of a rash secondary to penicillin but has been treated previously for skin abscesses with cephalexin.
His temperature is 38.5 C (101.4 F) . Cardiac examination reveals a faint diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. Skin examination shows needle track marks on both arms.
All 4 bottles of blood cultures obtained on admission grow Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin-susceptible) . Intravenous cefazolin is initiated. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals a 0.9 cm aortic valve vegetation with mild aortic regurgitation and normal left ventricular ejection fraction. On the third day of hospitalization, he is intermittently febrile and develops respiratory failure. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation is initiated. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral alveolar opacities consistent with pulmonary edema.
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Add gentamicin to cefazolin
B) Add rifampin to cefazolin
C) Change cefazolin to vancomycin
D) Obtain CT of the chest with contrast
E) Obtain transesophageal echocardiogram
Correct Answer:
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