A 40-year-old man comes to the emergency department and reports, "I think I have pinkeye." He was feeling well until 4 days ago when he developed fever, malaise, rhinorrhea, and a dry cough. He then noticed bilateral eye redness, irritation, and mucoid drainage. A red rash formed on his neck and trunk yesterday morning and spread to his face by the evening. The patient has no ill family members but recently returned from a missionary trip to Bangladesh. He is up to date on his vaccinations.
Temperature is 39 C (102.2 F) , blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination shows conjunctival erythema and edema. Small white papules are present on the buccal mucosa. Chest is clear to auscultation. Skin examination shows an erythematous, maculopapular rash that blanches on palpation, as shown in the exhibit. 
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's illness?
A) Institute airborne-infection isolation
B) Obtain cerebrospinal fluid for Gram stain and culture
C) Obtain Monospot test
D) Order rapid antigen testing for malarial parasite
E) Start empiric doxycycline therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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