A 45-year-old man comes to the office due to loss of sexual desire and failure to attain satisfactory erections during intercourse. He has no morning erections. The patient has no leg or buttock pain with exertion but has had intermittent bilateral hand pain. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and recent-onset peripheral neuropathy. He does not use tobacco or alcohol. The patient has a 12-year-old child from a previous marriage and now lives with his second wife. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. The neck is supple with no thyromegaly or lymphadenopathy. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender with palpable hepatomegaly. Genital examination shows small testes bilaterally but otherwise normal secondary sexual characteristics. Peripheral pulses are 2+, and capillary refill in the feet is normal. Neurologic examination demonstrates normal deep tendon reflexes and muscle strength; sensation is mildly decreased in both ankles. Visual field testing is normal. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Karyotype analysis
B) Nocturnal polysomnography
C) Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor therapy
D) Scrotal ultrasound
E) Serum ferritin level
F) Testosterone replacement therapy
Correct Answer:
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