A 57-year-old man comes to the office due to several months of persistent tingling in both legs. The patient also says he feels clumsy and often bumps into furniture. He has a history of hip osteoarthritis, but the pain is well controlled with acetaminophen and occasional ibuprofen and does not limit his mobility. The patient also has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease and Barrett esophagus; he has used omeprazole for the past several years and has had no recent heartburn or dysphagia. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient consumes a balanced diet and walks 1 or 2 miles every other day. Vital signs are within normal limits. Lower extremity muscle strength is intact. Sensation to light touch and vibration are diminished in the feet bilaterally. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient's symptoms?
A) Serologic testing for HIV
B) Serum protein electrophoresis
C) Serum vitamin B12 level test
D) Urine analysis for heavy metals
E) Viral hepatitis serology
Correct Answer:
Verified
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