A 46-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to left lower extremity swelling for the past 2 years. She has had several episodes of cellulitis involving the left leg. During the most recent episode 6 months ago, she underwent treatment with intravenous antibiotics that was complicated by a catheter-related axillary vein thrombosis requiring 3 months of anticoagulation therapy. Her medical history is also significant for diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Physical examination shows firm edema of the left lower extremity. There is no erythema or warmth. The examiner cannot lift the skin from the dorsum of the toes on the left foot but is able to do so with the toes on the right foot. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Albuminuria
B) Disruption of lymphatics
C) Increased central venous pressure
D) Systemic sclerosis
E) Venous valve incompetence
Correct Answer:
Verified
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