A 74-year-old man comes to the office due to urinary frequency over the last 2 months. He wakes up to use the bathroom several times during the night. He also has had mild straining during urination. Over the last few weeks, he has had 2 episodes of bloody urine that cleared spontaneously. The patient had right knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis 7 years ago. His father died of colon cancer. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history but quit 15 years ago. Rectal examination shows an enlarged and smooth prostate with no nodules, and normal rectal sphincter tone. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL and prostate-specific antigen level is 3.8 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL) . Urinalysis shows 0-1 white blood cells/hpf and 3-5 red blood cells/hpf, with no proteinuria, bacteriuria, casts, or dysmorphic red blood cells. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cystoscopy
B) Finasteride
C) Prostate biopsy
D) Urine culture
E) Urine flow rate testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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