A 56-year-old man comes to the office for follow up of hypertension. The patient had undergone kidney transplantation one year ago for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. He was originally seen in the office 8 weeks ago for hypertension and had a blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg; initially he was given amlodipine, but the patient continued to have hypertension. Two weeks ago, he was also started on lisinopril. In addition, he takes tacrolimus and low-dose prednisone. The patient currently feels well. Today, blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination shows normal jugular venous pressure, vesicular breath sounds, and normal heart sounds. The transplant site is nontender. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine level of 2.4 mg/dL (2 weeks ago: 1.5 mg/dL) . Serum tacrolimus level is within the normal therapeutic range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Kidney biopsy
B) Lisinopril dose increase
C) Prednisone discontinuance
D) Renal vascular imaging
E) Tacrolimus discontinuance
Correct Answer:
Verified
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