A 24-year-old woman comes to the office with several months of low back and buttock pain. Her pain is most severe early in the morning and fades as the day progresses. There is no recent history of significant illness or trauma. Vital signs are normal. On examination, tenderness is present in the lower lumbar spine. Muscle strength and deep tendon reflexes are normal and equal in all extremities. Plain x-ray findings are shown in the image below:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Colchicine
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
C) Oxycodone
D) Prednisone
E) Tumor necrosis factor inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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