A 25-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for reevaluation of persistent low back pain and stiffness. The patient was first seen 6 months ago with intermittent pain that responded well to naproxen. The pain has since progressed and now occurs throughout the day and is no longer relieved by naproxen. The patient is unable to fully participate in an exercise program due to his symptoms. He is a lifetime nonsmoker and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 90 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Ibuprofen as needed
B) Methotrexate
C) Mycophenolate
D) Rituximab
E) Tumor necrosis factor antagonist
Correct Answer:
Verified
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