A 40-year-old man comes to the office due to muscle and joint pains for 2 months. Review of systems is otherwise negative. The patient underwent Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery for obesity 2 years ago and has lost 40 kg (88 lb) since the surgery. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 28 kg/m2. There is no pallor, lymphadenopathy, thyromegaly, or jaundice. Abdominal examination reveals no tenderness and no organomegaly. Muscle strength is 5/5, and no focal muscle tenderness is present. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient?
A) Measurement of 25-hydroxyvitamin D level
B) Measurement of antinuclear antibodies
C) Measurement of serum creatine kinase
D) Measurement of serum transferrin saturation
E) Radionuclide bone scanning
Correct Answer:
Verified
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