A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of severe chest pain accompanied by nausea. The pain started suddenly, and the patient describes it as "tearing." He has a long-standing history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has no history of coronary artery disease or stroke. The patient is a former smoker with a 35-pack-year history. He does not use illicit drugs. ECG shows sinus tachycardia without any significant ST-segment or T-wave changes. CT angiography is performed and confirms dissection of the ascending aorta extending up to the arch. While the patient is being prepared for urgent surgery, he develops increasing shortness of breath and refuses to lie flat. Chest auscultation reveals bibasilar crackles that were not present on initial evaluation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's shortness of breath?
A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B) Aortic valve insufficiency
C) Cerebral hypoperfusion
D) Pericardial tamponade
E) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
Correct Answer:
Verified
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