A 69-year-old man undergoes coronary artery bypass grafting and aortic valve replacement surgery. He has a history of aortic stenosis, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. The surgery is uncomplicated, and the patient is extubated and transferred to the stepdown unit on postoperative day 2. That night, he experiences sudden onset of weakness, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. On examination, he appears in moderate distress. His blood pressure is 70/30 mm Hg, pulse is 148/min, and respirations are 26/min. Lung auscultation indicates bibasilar crackles. An ECG rhythm strip is shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amiodarone
B) Defibrillation
C) Diltiazem
D) Direct current cardioversion
E) Lidocaine
F) Transcutaneous pacing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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