A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to intermittent, burning midline chest pain over the last 2 hours. He has never had similar pain. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia. An immediate ECG reveals sinus rhythm with ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF. Temperature is 37.8 C (99.7 F) , blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 15/min. He is given sublingual nitroglycerin, and the on-call cardiologist is notified. Several minutes later, the patient reports lightheadedness and extreme weakness. His repeat blood pressure is 75/50 mm Hg and pulse is 85/min. The patient is diaphoretic and his extremities are cold. Jugular venous pulse is elevated in the semirecumbent position. On auscultation, the lungs are clear and no murmurs are heard. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT angiography of the chest
B) Immediate pericardiocentesis
C) Intravenous dopamine infusion
D) Normal saline bolus
E) Temporary cardiac pacing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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