A 59-year-old man comes to the office due to a month of dysuria, urinary urgency, and frequency. Over the past few days, he has also had dull, nonradiating suprapubic pain. He has never had similar symptoms before. The patient has a history of obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and major depression. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years and does not use alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. Mild suprapubic tenderness is present. Rectal examination reveals a smooth, firm enlargement of the prostate with no tenderness, induration, or asymmetry. Laboratory results are as follows.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
A) Bladder cancer
B) Bladder infection
C) Chronic bacterial prostatitis
D) Detrusor overactivity
E) Prostate cancer
F) Renal cell carcinoma
G) Urethral stricture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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