A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 30 weeks gestation comes to the office due to burning pain in her right hand. The pain is mild and intermittent but worse at night and is felt mainly over the first, second, and third digits. Shaking the hands or letting them hang down briefly relieves the pain. There is no associated neck or forearm pain. Her pregnancy has otherwise been uncomplicated. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Fetal heart tones are 160/min. On examination, there is no thenar or hypothenar atrophy, and thumb opposition is normal. Percussion over the volar aspect of the wrist reproduces the pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Decompression surgery
C) Local glucocorticoid injection
D) No treatment until after delivery
E) Wrist splinting
Correct Answer:
Verified
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