A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for fever. Eight days ago, the patient developed fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and watery diarrhea. Her gastrointestinal symptoms subsided in 3 days, but her fever has persisted and has not responded to ibuprofen and acetaminophen. The patient has also been irritable with decreased oral intake. Temperature is 39.4 C (102.9 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 24/min. Examination shows injected sclera and dry, red, cracked lips. Heart and lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nontender without organomegaly. Perineal erythema and a macular rash are present over the trunk and distal extremities. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Colonoscopy and mucosal biopsy
B) Intravenous ceftriaxone
C) Intravenous immunoglobulin
D) Peripheral flow cytometry
E) Renal ultrasound
Correct Answer:
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