A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 5 days of dyspnea. The patient says he wakes up during the night with difficulty breathing that keeps him from going back to sleep. He has never had these symptoms before. Medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension and nonadherence with antihypertensive therapy. The patient developed a deep vein thrombosis 8 years ago after surgery for a tibial fracture and completed 6 months of anticoagulation therapy. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history. Blood pressure is 182/109 mm Hg and pulse is 110/min and regular. Oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Bibasilar crackles and scattered wheezes are noted on auscultation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Albuterol and corticosteroids
B) Intravenous amiodarone
C) Intravenous digoxin
D) Intravenous furosemide
E) Intravenous metoprolol
F) Therapeutic anticoagulation
Correct Answer:
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