A 55-year-old man comes to the office due to several months of worsening cramping in his left leg that he has noted during morning exercise. The patient has no chest discomfort, shortness of breath, palpitations, or syncope. Medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. He is an ex-smoker with a 20-pack-year history. The patient does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. He exercises twice a week and follows a low-fat diet. His father had a myocardial infarction at age 60 and died from a second myocardial infarction at age 65. Blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg and pulse is 85/min. Cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are within normal limits. Peripheral pulses are decreased in the left leg. Ankle-brachial index is 0.65 in the left and 1.1 in the right. ECG is within normal limits. Fasting laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Aspirin alone
B) Aspirin and atorvastatin
C) Aspirin and fenofibrate
D) Surgical revascularization
E) Warfarin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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