A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to chest pain. Two weeks ago, he was hospitalized for an acute myocardial infarction, and he is afraid his heart attack is recurring. He localizes the pain to the middle of the chest and says that he can only take shallow breaths because deep breaths make the pain worse. Leaning forward in his chair makes the pain somewhat better. He notes some associated neck pain and general malaise, but has not had any shortness of breath, palpitations, syncope, or cough. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 135/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. ECG shows ST segment elevations in all limb and precordial leads except in aVR, where ST depression is seen. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Anticoagulation with heparin
B) Anticoagulation with warfarin
C) Nitroglycerin and beta blockers
D) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
E) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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