A 64-year-old nondiabetic man complains of cramping pain in his right thigh after walking 2 blocks. The pain goes away once he stops and rests for several minutes. He is an ex-smoker with 35-pack-year history. He has no history of heart disease or stroke. On physical examination, the femoral pulses are normal, but the popliteal and dorsalis pedis pulses are diminished on the right leg. His ankle brachial index is 0.98 on the left and 0.72 on the right. He is started on low-dose aspirin and lipid-lowering therapy. Which of the following is the best initial management for this patient?
A) Arteriography followed by surgical bypass procedure
B) Computed tomography angiography followed by stenting
C) Exercise therapy
D) Pentoxifylline
E) Warfarin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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