A 74-year-old man comes to the office to establish care. The patient has been in good health and has no symptoms. He has not been to a primary care physician for several years. Medical history includes right knee osteoarthritis, for which he occasionally takes ibuprofen. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Blood pressure is 165/75 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. A 2/6 systolic ejection murmur is heard at the right sternal border without radiation. Peripheral pulses are full without delay. ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy with secondary ST-segment and T-wave changes. Echocardiogram reveals moderate left ventricular hypertrophy without significant flow abnormalities. Ejection fraction is 60%. Which of the following is the most likely cause of hypertension in this patient?
A) Aortic insufficiency
B) Elevated plasma renin activity
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Increased intravascular volume
E) Rigidity of the arterial walls
Correct Answer:
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