A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with substernal chest pain, severe shortness of breath, and diaphoresis that began suddenly 40 minutes ago. The pain radiates to his left arm and does not remit with sublingual nitroglycerin. The patient has vomited twice since the pain started. ECG shows 2-mm ST elevations in the anterior leads. On physical examination, the patient's temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 60/min, respirations are 32/min, and oxygen saturation is 90% on 4 L/min oxygen by nasal canula. Cardiac examination shows an S3. Lung examination shows basilar crackles that extend halfway up the lung fields bilaterally. He is given 325 mg of aspirin, 600 mg of clopidogrel, and 80 mg of atorvastatin. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amlodipine
B) Digoxin
C) Furosemide
D) Intravenous normal saline
E) Metoprolol
F) Spironolactone
G) Verapamil
Correct Answer:
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