A 60-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to 2 weeks of progressive exertional dyspnea and fatigue. He has difficulty falling asleep and can hardly walk to the bathroom without becoming short of breath. The patient has had no chest pain, syncope, cough, or extremity edema. Two months ago, he was hospitalized with an anterior wall myocardial infarction but was not revascularized due to late presentation. The patient was discharged home with aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. Temperature is 36.6 C (97.9 F) , blood pressure is 100/67 mm Hg, and pulse is 67/min and regular. Examination shows bilateral crackles in the lower lung fields. The apical impulse is displaced to the left. A faint systolic murmur is heard over the apex. ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and deep Q waves in leads I, aVL, and V2-V5, with a 2-mm ST-segment elevation; the ECG tracings are unchanged compared to those at discharge 2 months ago. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Acute pericarditis
B) Papillary muscle rupture
C) Pericardial effusion
D) Recurrent ischemia
E) Right ventricular infarction
F) Ventricular aneurysm
G) Ventricular free wall rupture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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