A 65-year-old woman comes to the office due to gastrointestinal bleeding. She has had 3 or 4 episodes of dark maroon-colored stools in the last 2 weeks, with normal intervening bowel movements. The patient has no associated abdominal or rectal pain, nausea, or vomiting. She has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur in the right second intercostal space. Carotid pulses are delayed on palpation bilaterally. Abdominal and rectal examinations are benign. Laboratory results are as follows:
Colonoscopy 6 months earlier was unremarkable but was somewhat limited in the ascending colon due to suboptimal bowel preparation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Angiodysplasia
B) Colon cancer
C) Diverticulosis
D) Hemorrhoids
E) Ischemic colitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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