A 34-year-old man comes to the office with a 4-week history of diarrhea. He has no blood in the stools. The patient recently returned from a trip to South America, where he developed foul-smelling stools, abdominal cramps, and bloating. A 3-day course of ciprofloxacin did not relieve his symptoms. He has no previous medical problems and has never had similar symptoms. The patient takes no other medication and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 126/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen with increased bowel sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Ciprofloxacin for 5 more days
B) Colonoscopy with mucosal biopsy
C) CT scan of the abdomen
D) Stool antigen testing for Clostridium difficile
E) Stool antigen testing for Giardia
F) Upper endoscopy with biopsy of the small bowel
Correct Answer:
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