A 64-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to headache and nausea over the last 2 days. She has end-stage renal disease due to advanced diabetic nephropathy and recently started hemodialysis. In addition, the patient has anemia due to chronic kidney disease and is receiving treatment with erythropoietin and parenteral iron. Medical history is notable for mild hypertension, osteoporosis, and hypothyroidism. Blood pressure is 210/121 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. Muscle strength is normal and sensory examination is unremarkable. There are no heart murmurs. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows bilateral retinal hemorrhages. Fingerstick glucose level is 186 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Cerebellar hemorrhage
B) Cerebral venous thrombosis
C) Erythropoietin therapy
D) Fibrinoid necrosis of renal arterioles
E) Osmotic shifts during hemodialysis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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