A 26-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a 2-week history of persistent abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant, low-grade fever, and anorexia. The patient recently immigrated to the United States from Mexico, where he worked as a mechanic. Several months ago, he had bloody diarrhea for several days, which resolved spontaneously. He takes no medications or herbal preparations. The patient has had no other travel, exposure to animals, or sick contacts. Temperature is 38.7 C (101.7 F) , blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Blood cultures are sterile through 48 hours. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a 2x3 cm abscess in the right lobe of the liver. In addition to confirmatory testing, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Intravenous ceftriaxone therapy
B) Oral metronidazole therapy
C) Percutaneous aspiration or drainage
D) Reassurance and reimaging in 3 months
E) Surgical lobe resection
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1281: A 54-year-old woman is brought to the
Q1282: A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q1283: A 72-year-old man comes to the hospital
Q1284: A 19-year-old college student is brought to
Q1285: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q1287: A 53-year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis
Q1288: A 42-year-old man comes to the office
Q1289: A 30-year-old man comes to the office
Q1290: A 19-year-old college student comes to the
Q1291: A 57-year-old man who just returned from
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents