A 32-year-old woman comes to the office with several days of tingling and numbness in both hands. She moved to Arizona in June to care for her ailing mother who died 2 weeks ago of metastatic lung cancer. Since moving, she has had occasional headaches, dizziness, fatigue, poor sleep, and blurry vision. She has had no fevers, weight loss, or anorexia. Her medical history is unremarkable. The patient drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine daily but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Her blood pressure is 132/70 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. Sensation to light touch and pain is decreased distally in the bilateral upper extremities. Muscle strength is 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities and deep tendon reflexes are normal. On funduscopic examination, the right optic disc appears hyperemic and swollen. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Carotid Doppler ultrasound
B) Cervical spine x-ray
C) Lumbar puncture
D) MRI of the brain and spine
E) Nerve conduction studies
F) Serum immunoglobulin levels
G) Trial of lorazepam
Correct Answer:
Verified
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