A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a week of clumsiness and shaking in her right arm. The patient also feels unsteady and has fallen twice in the past 2 days. One year ago, she had diplopia and vertigo for 2 weeks that resolved without treatment. The patient has no other medical problems. She takes oral contraceptives and occasionally acetaminophen. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She recently started a vegan diet. Her father died of a large stroke, and her mother has diabetes mellitus. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min and regular. BMI is 34 kg/m2. On physical examination, there is mild right pronator drift but no muscle weakness. The patient is unable to walk a tandem gait. MRI of the brain without contrast is shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate acetazolamide
B) Initiate aspirin and atorvastatin
C) Initiate intravenous heparin
D) Initiate methylprednisolone
E) Initiate vitamin B
F) Perform echocardiogram
G) Perform lumbar puncture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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