A 53-year-old man comes to the office due to occasional shaking of his right hand for the last 3 months. He frequently notices the shaking while resting in an armchair and watching television. It often stops when he reaches for the remote to change the channel. The shaking becomes more pronounced when the patient is engaged in mental tasks. He drinks coffee and occasionally has a glass of wine at dinner; these have no effect on the tremor. His left hand has no symptoms. The patient has no weakness, numbness, paresthesias, or gait dysfunction. There is no other significant medical history and he takes no medications. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
A) Basal ganglia dysfunction
B) Cerebellar dysfunction
C) Corticospinal tract lesion
D) Essential tremor
E) Orthostatic tremor
F) Peripheral neuropathy
G) Physiologic tremor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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