A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to sudden-onset left-sided weakness. According to the family, she has had fatigue, malaise, and decreased appetite over the last several weeks. She attributed these symptoms to a "viral infection" and treated herself with over-the-counter acetaminophen. Her temperature is 37.4 C (99.4 F) , blood pressure is 140/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. The patient appears confused and agitated. Lungs are clear to auscultation. A 2/6 holosystolic murmur is heard at the cardiac apex. Extremity examination reveals left-sided muscle strength is 1/5 with hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. Babinski sign is present on the left side. Laboratory results are as follows:
Cerebrospinal fluid cell counts are normal, and cultures are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Antiphospholipid syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Neurosyphilis
D) Polyarteritis nodosa
E) Rheumatic fever
Correct Answer:
Verified
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