A 23-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa is evaluated due to acute-onset confusion while hospitalized. Over the past 6 months, she has been severely restricting her caloric intake and has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) . On admission, she was tachycardic and orthostatic, and her BMI was 15 kg/m2. The patient has been receiving intravenous hydration and parenteral nutrition. Today, her family notes that she seems newly confused and unsteady when walking. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. She is not oriented to time or place. Bilateral pupils are equal and reactive. Her lateral gaze is restricted on both sides and evokes a horizontal nystagmus. There is no nuchal rigidity or motor weakness. Bilateral ankle reflexes are diminished. The patient walks slowly with short and wide-based steps. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Intramuscular cobalamin
B) Intravenous acyclovir
C) Parenteral phosphate
D) Systemic glucocorticoids
E) Thiamine supplement
F) Thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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