A 35-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 2-day history of weakness in her right hand. She has no other symptoms but reports a transient episode of lower extremity numbness that resolved spontaneously. The patient has a history of herpes labialis and she takes valacyclovir as needed. She recently began taking a vitamin D supplement after she was found to have low serum vitamin D levels. Other medications include oral contraceptive pills; she has also received annual influenza vaccines. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in her mother and hypertension in her father. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Examination shows mild spasticity in her right hand. MRI of the brain shows the findings seen below.
Which of the following is most strongly associated with this patient's current condition?
A) Annual influenza vaccination
B) Failure to use barrier contraception
C) Recurrent herpes simplex infection
D) Valacyclovir use
E) Vitamin D deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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