A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with headaches for the last 6 weeks. The headaches are pulsatile in quality and associated with nausea. They are worse at night and awaken her from sleep. She has no photophobia, weakness, sensory abnormalities, or history of trauma. The patient takes no medications. Her body mass index is 33 kg/m2. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. Funduscopy shows papilledema. Computed tomography scan of the brain shows no abnormalities. Lumbar puncture shows an elevated opening pressure with otherwise normal cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Acetazolamide
B) Mannitol
C) Repeated lumbar punctures
D) Sumatriptan
E) Surgery
F) Timolol eye drops
Correct Answer:
Verified
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