A 38-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to confusion and double vision. His family reports that the patient did not feel well for the past several days due to headaches, nausea, and vomiting. Yesterday, he became progressively confused and experienced double vision. He has a history of HIV and does not take antiretroviral therapy consistently. Temperature is 38.2 C (100.7 F) , blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. On physical examination, the patient appears lethargic and disoriented. Pupils are equal and reactive, but the left eye does not move laterally with leftward gaze. The rest of the neurologic examination is unremarkable. Skin examination shows scattered, small, umbilicated papules with surrounding erythema. CT scan of the head reveals mildly enlarged ventricles but no hemorrhage, infarction, or mass lesions. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation of this patient?
A) Anti-Toxoplasma gondii antibody assay
B) Empiric trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C) Gadolinium-enhanced brain MRI
D) Lumbar puncture and India ink stain
E) Serum PCR for cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer:
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