A 76-year-old woman comes to the office due to headache. For the last week, she has had a dull, right-sided headache associated with malaise; her symptoms are unlike any headache she has had in the past. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and coronary artery disease. The patient smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day and does not drink alcohol. Vital signs are normal. Examination shows normal extraocular movement and funduscopic inspection. There is normal, pain-free range of motion at the cervical spine and no focal cervical or cranial tenderness. Cranial nerve examination is normal. Cardiac examination is also normal, and the feet are warm and dry. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 55 mm/hr (normal: ≤29) . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Obtain temporal artery biopsy and start prednisone if positive
B) Order a noncontrast CT scan of the head
C) Prescribe a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
D) Start prednisone and obtain a temporal artery biopsy
E) Start prednisone without additional testing
Correct Answer:
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