A 70-year-old woman comes to the emergency department at 10 PM after falling in her kitchen 30 minutes ago. She has severe left wrist pain. The patient did not hit her head and reports no other injuries. Medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoporosis. Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the left wrist is bruised and swollen and diffusely tender to palpation, but the skin overlying the wrist is intact. The radial pulse is absent, and capillary refill in the fingers is delayed. X-rays of the left wrist are shown in the exhibits.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer intraarterial thrombolytic therapy
B) Admit for orthopedic evaluation in the morning
C) Measure forearm compartment pressure
D) Perform closed reduction in the emergency department
E) Splint the wrist and arrange for outpatient follow-up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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