A 72-year-old woman comes to the office due to intermittent lower abdominal discomfort for the past several months. The patient also reports frequent urges for bowel movements every day producing small-volume stools or just mucus and are often followed by a sensation of incomplete evacuation. Physical examination shows a nondistended and nontender abdomen. Digital rectal examination reveals normal rectal tone and an empty rectal vault. When the patient is instructed to bear down, an erythematous mass with concentric rings protrudes through the anus and spontaneously retracts. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for this patient's current condition?
A) Colonic polyps
B) Crohn disease
C) Human papillomavirus infection
D) Multiple childbirths
E) Portal hypertension
Correct Answer:
Verified
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