A 51-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss colon cancer screening. She has normal bowel movements and has had no hematochezia, melena, or unexpected weight loss. Medical history is significant for hypertension. Her mother developed colon cancer at age 85. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Vital signs are normal. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. The patient undergoes colonoscopy, during which two small (8 mm) hyperplastic polyps are found and removed. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Colonoscopy in 1 year
B) Colonoscopy in 10 years
C) CT scan of the abdomen
D) Fecal occult blood testing in 6 months
E) Mismatch repair genetic testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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