An 18-year-old man comes to the office due to 3 days of progressive left testicular pain. The pain began gradually and is dull and achy. The patient has had no trauma to that area and has never had similar symptoms. He has no fever, chills, urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discharge, or penile ulcerations. The patient is sexually active. Vital signs are normal. The left testicle is lower in the scrotum than the right. The area posterior to the left testis is swollen and very tender. The pain improves with elevation of the testis, and the cremasteric reflex is normal. Urinalysis shows 4-5 white blood cells/hpf. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Analgesics and observation
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Emergency orchiectomy
D) Incision and drainage of scrotal mass
E) Renal and bladder ultrasound
Correct Answer:
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