A 24-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of progressive enlargement of the breasts for 2 years. He reports normal early morning erections and has had no headaches, breast pain or discharge, or fatigue. The patient does not use alcohol or recreational drugs. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. BMI is 35 kg/m2. Examination of the breast shows soft tissue enlargement without clearly defined, palpable borders or nodules. There is no tenderness, discharge, nipple retraction, or skin dimpling. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Obtain breast ultrasound
B) Obtain serum prolactin level
C) Obtain testicular ultrasound
D) Recommend tamoxifen therapy
E) Recommend weight loss
Correct Answer:
Verified
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