A 73-year-old man comes to the physician because of right anterior thigh pain that is worse with walking. He has a history of stable angina, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and COPD with periodic exacerbations. He takes ipratropium, aspirin, metoprolol and pravastatin. He smokes 2 packs a day and drinks alcohol occasionally. Physical examination shows a small pulsatile mass in the right groin area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Femoral vein aneurysm
B) Femoral artery aneurysm
C) Indirect inguinal hernia
D) Direct inguinal hernia
E) Femoral hernia
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q229: A 40-year-old woman with a medical history
Q230: A previously healthy 24-year-old man is brought
Q231: A 55-year-old man is brought to the
Q232: A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q233: A 50-year-old man comes to the physician
Q235: An 88-year-old man is evaluated due to
Q236: A 53-year-old man is brought to the
Q237: A 49-year-old man, who is in the
Q238: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q239: A 46-year-old man with autosomal dominant polycystic
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents