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A 67-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to a 2-Day

Question 327

Multiple Choice

A 67-year-old man comes to the office due to a 2-day history of diarrhea and left-sided abdominal pain.  The patient was seen in the emergency department 10 days ago due to left lower quadrant pain and low-grade fever; CT scan showed sigmoid diverticulitis.  He was given amoxicillin-clavulanic acid therapy for 7 days.  The patient completed the course of antibiotic therapy with good resolution of symptoms.  However, over the past 2 days, he has developed left-sided abdominal pain and multiple watery stools.  Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min.  Abdominal examination shows left-sided tenderness without rebound, rigidity, or guarding.  Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric therapy while studies are pending in this patient?


A) Fidaxomicin
B) Levofloxacin
C) Loperamide
D) Metronidazole
E) Neomycin

Correct Answer:

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