A 72-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up. He was recently diagnosed with a 4.2-cm adenocarcinoma of the cecum, with CT scans showing no evidence of metastases. The patient underwent right hemicolectomy, with histopathology indicating that the tumor involved only the mucosa and submucosa but not the muscular layers of the colon. Complete tumor resection was achieved with clear margins and without lymph node involvement. The patient feels well and has no symptoms. Medical history is significant for hypertension and obesity. Temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Heart and lung sounds are unremarkable. There is a well-healed surgical scar on the abdomen, which is otherwise soft and nontender. Which of the following is recommended for this patient?
A) Abdominal CT scan in 1 year
B) Annual fecal occult blood testing
C) Colonoscopy in 1 year
D) Colonoscopy in 5 years
E) No additional intervention
Correct Answer:
Verified
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