A 63-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of a left breast mass. The patient noticed a small lump in the left breast a few months ago after he was struck in the chest. He expected the lump to disappear, but it has since enlarged and becomes irritated by the heavy protective vest he wears while working as a corrections officer. Medical history is significant for obesity, hypertension, and obstructive sleep apnea. Physical examination shows an obese habitus with increased fatty breast tissue bilaterally. There is a 2-cm firm, fixed, nontender subareolar mass in the left breast with nipple inversion. The right breast has no discrete masses. There is no axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Early-morning testosterone level
B) Excision of the mass
C) Mammography
D) Serum prolactin level
E) Testicular ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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