A 60-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the emergency department due to worsening perianal pain. The patient is febrile, hypotensive, and tachycardic. Physical examination reveals tenderness and swelling in the perianal and gluteal region with dusky overlying skin and palpable crepitus. Leukocyte count is 27,000/mm3, and CT scan shows edema of the gluteal and perineal subcutaneous tissue with free gas. Intravenous fluids and antibiotics are initiated, and the patient undergoes urgent surgical debridement of the necrotic tissue. Several hours later, she experiences increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia. Chest x-ray reveals new bilateral lung infiltrates. Bedside echocardiography shows a hyperdynamic left ventricle with no significant valve disease. Which of the following best describes this patient's current pulmonary condition?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Correct Answer:
Verified
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