A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office for her first prenatal visit. The patient's last menstrual period was 2 months ago, and she has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping. She has a history of intravenous heroin use but stopped when she was diagnosed with HIV infection last year. The patient has completed a methadone program and currently does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She started combination antiretroviral therapy last year but stopped taking her medications 2 weeks ago when she found out she was pregnant. Vital signs are normal. Serum laboratory results are as follows:
Urine β-hCG is positive and toxicology screen is negative. Ultrasound confirms a 6-week intrauterine pregnancy. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Combination antiretroviral therapy starting immediately
B) Combination antiretroviral therapy starting in the third trimester
C) Combination antiretroviral therapy when CD4 count is ≤350 cells/mm³
D) Combination antiretroviral therapy when viral load is >1,000 copies/mL
E) Maternal zidovudine monotherapy at delivery only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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