A 46-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The patient first noticed a small abdominal mass 2 months ago that was not painful and did not cause any issues. However, over the past month, the mass has slowly grown and sometimes causes mild abdominal discomfort. The patient has had no weight loss, nausea, vomiting, or changes in bowel patterns. She underwent a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine sarcoma 6 years ago. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 32 kg/m2. The patient has a large, vertical midline abdominal scar consistent with her prior surgery. There is a small, nontender mass at the midline that is palpable while the patient is supine and increases in size with Valsalva. Bowel sounds are normal; there is no rebound or guarding. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Incisional hernia
B) Metastatic uterine sarcoma
C) Rectus abdominis diastasis
D) Rectus sheath hematoma
E) Subcutaneous lipoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
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