A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 38 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to regular, painful contractions. The contractions began an hour ago, immediately after the patient had a "gush" of fluid. She has had no vaginal bleeding, and fetal movement has been normal. The patient's last prenatal visit was 6 weeks ago. She has no known medical conditions and does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 140/min with multiple accelerations and no decelerations. Contractions occur every 2 minutes on tocodynamometer. Pelvic examination shows a cluster of clear vesicles with an erythematous base on the right labium minus. Speculum examination shows a pool of clear fluid in the posterior vagina. The cervix is 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at 0 station. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer tocolytics
B) Continue expectant management
C) Initiate augmentation of labor
D) Perform cesarean delivery
E) Place fetal scalp electrode
F) Start antiviral therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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